2025
JEE Main 2025 (Online) 8th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 7th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 7th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 4th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 4th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 3rd April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 3rd April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 2nd April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 2nd April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 29th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 29th January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 28th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 28th January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 24th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 24th January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 23rd January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 23rd January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 22nd January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 22nd January Morning Shift
2024
JEE Main 2024 (Online) 9th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 9th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 8th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 8th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 6th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 6th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 5th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 5th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 4th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 4th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 1st February Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 1st February Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 31st January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 31st January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 30th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 30th January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 29th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 29th January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 27th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 27th January Morning Shift
2023
JEE Main 2023 (Online) 15th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 13th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 13th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 12th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 11th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 11th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 10th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 10th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 8th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 8th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 6th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 6th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 1st February Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 1st February Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 31st January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 31st January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 30th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 30th January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 29th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 29th January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 25th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 25th January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 24th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 24th January Morning Shift
2022
JEE Main 2022 (Online) 29th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 29th July Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 28th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 28th July Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 27th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 27th July Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 26th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 26th July Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 25th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 25th July Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 30th June Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 29th June Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 29th June Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 28th June Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 28th June Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 27th June Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 27th June Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 26th June Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 26th June Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 25th June Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 25th June Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 24th June Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 24th June Morning Shift
2021
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 1st September Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 31st August Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 31st August Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 27th August Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 27th August Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 26th August Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 26th August Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 27th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 27th July Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 25th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 25th July Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 22th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 20th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 20th July Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 18th March Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 18th March Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 17th March Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 17th March Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 16th March Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 16th March Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 26th February Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 26th February Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 25th February Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 25th February Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 24th February Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 24th February Morning Shift
2020
JEE Main 2020 (Online) 6th September Evening SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 6th September Morning SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 5th September Evening SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 5th September Morning SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 4th September Evening SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 4th September Morning SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 3rd September Evening SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 3rd September Morning SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 2nd September Evening SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 2nd September Morning SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 9th January Evening SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 9th January Morning SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 8th January Evening SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 8th January Morning SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 7th January Evening SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 7th January Morning Slot
2019
JEE Main 2019 (Online) 12th April Evening SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 12th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 10th April Evening SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 10th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 9th April Evening SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 9th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 8th April Evening SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 8th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 12th January Evening SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 12th January Morning SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 11th January Evening SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 11th January Morning SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 10th January Evening SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 10th January Morning SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 9th January Evening SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 9th January Morning Slot
2018
JEE Main 2018 (Online) 16th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2018 (Offline)JEE Main 2018 (Online) 15th April Evening SlotJEE Main 2018 (Online) 15th April Morning Slot
2017
JEE Main 2017 (Online) 9th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2017 (Online) 8th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2017 (Offline)
2016
JEE Main 2016 (Online) 10th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2016 (Online) 9th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2016 (Offline)
2015
JEE Main 2015 (Offline)
2014
JEE Main 2014 (Offline)
2013
JEE Main 2013 (Offline)
2012
AIEEE 2012
2011
AIEEE 2011
2010
AIEEE 2010
2009
AIEEE 2009
2008
AIEEE 2008
2007
AIEEE 2007
2006
AIEEE 2006
2005
AIEEE 2005
2004
AIEEE 2004
2003
AIEEE 2003
2002
AIEEE 2002
JEE Main 2023 (Online) 8th April Evening Shift
Paper was held on Sat, Apr 8, 2023 9:30 AM
Practice Questions
Chemistry
1

Match List I with List II

LIST I
Coordination Complex
LIST II
Number of unpaired electrons
A. $$\left[\mathrm{Cr}(\mathrm{CN})_{6}\right]^{3-}$$ I. 0
B. $$\left[\mathrm{Fe}\left(\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\right)_{6}\right]^{2+}$$ II. 3
C. $$\left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NH}_{3}\right)_{6}\right]^{3+}$$ III. 2
D. $$\left[\mathrm{Ni}\left(\mathrm{NH}_{3}\right)_{6}\right]^{2+}$$ IV. 4

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

2

The correct IUPAC nomenclature for the following compound is:

JEE Main 2023 (Online) 8th April Evening Shift Chemistry - Basics of Organic Chemistry Question 97 English

3

Major product '$$\mathrm{P}$$' formed in the following reaction is:

JEE Main 2023 (Online) 8th April Evening Shift Chemistry - Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Question 47 English

4

A compound '$$\mathrm{X}$$' when treated with phthalic anhydride in presence of concentrated $$\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{SO}_{4}$$ yields '$$\mathrm{Y}$$'. '$$\mathrm{Y}$$' is used as an acid/base indicator. '$$\mathrm{X}$$' and '$$\mathrm{Y}$$' are respectively

5

Henry Moseley studied characteristic X-ray spectra of elements. The graph which represents his observation correctly is

Given $$v=$$ frequency of $$\mathrm{X}$$-ray emitted

Z = atomic number

6

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : In redox titration, the indicators used are sensitive to change in $$\mathrm{pH}$$ of the solution.

Statement II : In acid-base titration, the indicators used are sensitive to change in oxidation potential.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

7

For a good quality cement, the ratio of lime to the total of the oxides of $$\mathrm{Si}, \mathrm{Al}$$ and $\mathrm{Fe}$ should be as close as to :

8

The correct order of reactivity of following haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution with aqueous $$\mathrm{NaOH}$$ is :

JEE Main 2023 (Online) 8th April Evening Shift Chemistry - Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Question 48 English

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

9

The correct reaction profile diagram for a positive catalyst reaction.

10

Match List I with List II

LIST I
Natural amino acid
LIST II
One letter code
A. Glutamic acid I. Q
B. Glutamine II. W
C. Tyrosine III. E
D. Tryptophan IV. Y

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

11

The product ($$\mathrm{P}$$) formed from the following multistep reaction is:

JEE Main 2023 (Online) 8th April Evening Shift Chemistry - Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 56 English

12

The descending order of acidity for the following carboxylic acid is-

A. $$\mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{COOH}$$

B. $$\mathrm{F}_{3} \mathrm{C}-\mathrm{COOH}$$

C. $$\mathrm{ClCH}_{2}-\mathrm{COOH}$$

D. $$\mathrm{FCH}_{2}-\mathrm{COOH}$$

E. $$\mathrm{BrCH}_{2}-\mathrm{COOH}$$

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

13

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Methyl orange is a weak acid.

Statement II : The benzenoid form of methyl orange is more intense/deeply coloured than the quinonoid form.

In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

14

The number of species from the following carrying a single lone pair on central atom Xenon is ___________.

$$\mathrm{XeF}_{5}^{+}, \mathrm{XeO}_{3}, \mathrm{XeO}_{2} \mathrm{~F}_{2}, \mathrm{XeF}_{5}^{-}, \mathrm{XeO}_{3} \mathrm{~F}_{2}, \mathrm{XeOF}_{4}, \mathrm{XeF}_{4}$$

15

The observed magnetic moment of the complex $$\left.\left[\operatorname{Mn}(\underline{N} C S)_{6}\right)\right]^{x^{-}}$$ is $$6.06 ~\mathrm{BM}$$. The numerical value of $$x$$ is __________.

16

The solubility product of $$\mathrm{BaSO}_{4}$$ is $$1 \times 10^{-10}$$ at $$298 \mathrm{~K}$$. The solubility of $$\mathrm{BaSO}_{4}$$ in $$0.1 ~\mathrm{M} ~\mathrm{K}_{2} \mathrm{SO}_{4}(\mathrm{aq})$$ solution is ___________ $$\times 10^{-9} \mathrm{~g} \mathrm{~L}^{-1}$$ (nearest integer).

Given: Molar mass of $$\mathrm{BaSO}_{4}$$ is $$233 \mathrm{~g} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}$$

17

If the boiling points of two solvents X and Y (having same molecular weights) are in the ratio $$2: 1$$ and their enthalpy of vaporizations are in the ratio $$1: 2$$, then the boiling point elevation constant of $$\mathrm{X}$$ is $$\underline{\mathrm{m}}$$ times the boiling point elevation constant of Y. The value of m is ____________ (nearest integer)

18

For complete combustion of ethene.

$$\mathrm{C}_{2} \mathrm{H}_{4}(\mathrm{g})+3 \mathrm{O}_{2}(\mathrm{g}) \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{CO}_{2}(\mathrm{g})+2 \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}(\mathrm{l})$$

the amount of heat produced as measured in bomb calorimeter is $$1406 \mathrm{~kJ} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}$$ at $$300 \mathrm{~K}$$. The minimum value of $$\mathrm{T} \Delta \mathrm{S}$$ needed to reach equilibrium is ($$-$$) _________ $$\mathrm{kJ}$$. (Nearest integer)

Given : $$\mathrm{R}=8.3 \mathrm{~J} \mathrm{~K}^{-1} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}$$

19

The number of atomic orbitals from the following having 5 radial nodes is ___________.

$$7 \mathrm{s}, 7 \mathrm{p}, 6 \mathrm{s}, 8 \mathrm{p}, 8 \mathrm{d}$$

20

The sum of oxidation state of the metals in $$\mathrm{Fe}(\mathrm{CO})_{5}, \mathrm{VO}^{2+}$$ and $$\mathrm{WO}_{3}$$ is ___________.

21

The number of incorrect statements from the following is ___________.

A. The electrical work that a reaction can perform at constant pressure and temperature is equal to the reaction Gibbs energy.

B. $$\mathrm{E_{cell}^{\circ}}$$ cell is dependent on the pressure.

C. $$\frac{d E^{\theta} \text { cell }}{\mathrm{dT}}=\frac{\Delta_{\mathrm{r}} \mathrm{S}^{\theta}}{\mathrm{nF}}$$

D. A cell is operating reversibly if the cell potential is exactly balanced by an opposing source of potential difference.

Mathematics
1

Let $$A=\left\{\theta \in(0,2 \pi): \frac{1+2 i \sin \theta}{1-i \sin \theta}\right.$$ is purely imaginary $$\}$$. Then the sum of the elements in $$\mathrm{A}$$ is :

2

$$25^{190}-19^{190}-8^{190}+2^{190}$$ is divisible by :

3

The integral $$ \int\left[\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)^x+\left(\frac{2}{x}\right)^x\right] \ln \left(\frac{e x}{2}\right) d x $$ is equal to :

4

If the probability that the random variable $$\mathrm{X}$$ takes values $$x$$ is given by $$\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{X}=x)=\mathrm{k}(x+1) 3^{-x}, x=0,1,2,3, \ldots$$, where $$\mathrm{k}$$ is a constant, then $$\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{X} \geq 2)$$ is equal to :

5

Let $$\mathrm{A}=\{1,2,3,4,5,6,7\}$$. Then the relation $$\mathrm{R}=\{(x, y) \in \mathrm{A} \times \mathrm{A}: x+y=7\}$$ is :

6

Let the mean and variance of 12 observations be $$\frac{9}{2}$$ and 4 respectively. Later on, it was observed that two observations were considered as 9 and 10 instead of 7 and 14 respectively. If the correct variance is $$\frac{m}{n}$$, where $$\mathrm{m}$$ and $$\mathrm{n}$$ are coprime, then $$\mathrm{m}+\mathrm{n}$$ is equal to :

7

The absolute difference of the coefficients of $$x^{10}$$ and $$x^{7}$$ in the expansion of $$\left(2 x^{2}+\frac{1}{2 x}\right)^{11}$$ is equal to :

8

The area of the quadrilateral $$\mathrm{ABCD}$$ with vertices $$\mathrm{A}(2,1,1), \mathrm{B}(1,2,5), \mathrm{C}(-2,-3,5)$$ and $$\mathrm{D}(1,-6,-7)$$ is equal to :

9

If the number of words, with or without meaning, which can be made using all the letters of the word MATHEMATICS in which $$\mathrm{C}$$ and $$\mathrm{S}$$ do not come together, is $$(6 !) \mathrm{k}$$, then $$\mathrm{k}$$ is equal to :

10

If $$A=\left[\begin{array}{cc}1 & 5 \\ \lambda & 10\end{array}\right], \mathrm{A}^{-1}=\alpha \mathrm{A}+\beta \mathrm{I}$$ and $$\alpha+\beta=-2$$, then $$4 \alpha^{2}+\beta^{2}+\lambda^{2}$$ is equal to :

11

If $$\alpha > \beta > 0$$ are the roots of the equation $$a x^{2}+b x+1=0$$, and $$\lim_\limits{x \rightarrow \frac{1}{\alpha}}\left(\frac{1-\cos \left(x^{2}+b x+a\right)}{2(1-\alpha x)^{2}}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}=\frac{1}{k}\left(\frac{1}{\beta}-\frac{1}{\alpha}\right), \text { then } \mathrm{k} \text { is equal to }$$ :

12

The value of $$36\left(4 \cos ^{2} 9^{\circ}-1\right)\left(4 \cos ^{2} 27^{\circ}-1\right)\left(4 \cos ^{2} 81^{\circ}-1\right)\left(4 \cos ^{2} 243^{\circ}-1\right)$$ is :

13

Let S be the set of all values of $$\theta \in[-\pi, \pi]$$ for which the system of linear equations

$$x+y+\sqrt{3} z=0$$

$$-x+(\tan \theta) y+\sqrt{7} z=0$$

$$x+y+(\tan \theta) z=0$$

has non-trivial solution. Then $$\frac{120}{\pi} \sum_\limits{\theta \in \mathrm{s}} \theta$$ is equal to :

14

Let $$[t]$$ denote the greatest integer function. If $$\int_\limits{0}^{2.4}\left[x^{2}\right] d x=\alpha+\beta \sqrt{2}+\gamma \sqrt{3}+\delta \sqrt{5}$$, then $$\alpha+\beta+\gamma+\delta$$ is equal to __________.

15

Let the area enclosed by the lines $$x+y=2, \mathrm{y}=0, x=0$$ and the curve $$f(x)=\min \left\{x^{2}+\frac{3}{4}, 1+[x]\right\}$$ where $$[x]$$ denotes the greatest integer $$\leq x$$, be $$\mathrm{A}$$. Then the value of $$12 \mathrm{~A}$$ is _____________.

16

Let m and $$\mathrm{n}$$ be the numbers of real roots of the quadratic equations $$x^{2}-12 x+[x]+31=0$$ and $$x^{2}-5|x+2|-4=0$$ respectively, where $$[x]$$ denotes the greatest integer $$\leq x$$. Then $$\mathrm{m}^{2}+\mathrm{mn}+\mathrm{n}^{2}$$ is equal to __________.

17

Let $$\mathrm{R}=\{\mathrm{a}, \mathrm{b}, \mathrm{c}, \mathrm{d}, \mathrm{e}\}$$ and $$\mathrm{S}=\{1,2,3,4\}$$. Total number of onto functions $$f: \mathrm{R} \rightarrow \mathrm{S}$$ such that $$f(\mathrm{a}) \neq 1$$, is equal to ______________.

18

Let $$\mathrm{k}$$ and $$\mathrm{m}$$ be positive real numbers such that the function $$f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}3 x^{2}+k \sqrt{x+1}, & 0 < x < 1 \\ m x^{2}+k^{2}, & x \geq 1\end{array}\right.$$ is differentiable for all $$x > 0$$. Then $$\frac{8 f^{\prime}(8)}{f^{\prime}\left(\frac{1}{8}\right)}$$ is equal to ____________.

19

Let the solution curve $$x=x(y), 0 < y < \frac{\pi}{2}$$, of the differential equation $$\left(\log _{e}(\cos y)\right)^{2} \cos y \mathrm{~d} x-\left(1+3 x \log _{e}(\cos y)\right) \sin \mathrm{y} d y=0$$ satisfy $$x\left(\frac{\pi}{3}\right)=\frac{1}{2 \log _{e} 2}$$. If $$x\left(\frac{\pi}{6}\right)=\frac{1}{\log _{e} m-\log _{e} n}$$, where $$m$$ and $$n$$ are coprime, then $$m n$$ is equal to __________.

20

If domain of the function $$\log _{e}\left(\frac{6 x^{2}+5 x+1}{2 x-1}\right)+\cos ^{-1}\left(\frac{2 x^{2}-3 x+4}{3 x-5}\right)$$ is $$(\alpha, \beta) \cup(\gamma, \delta]$$, then $$18\left(\alpha^{2}+\beta^{2}+\gamma^{2}+\delta^{2}\right)$$ is equal to ______________.

Physics
1

A hydraulic automobile lift is designed to lift vehicles of mass $$5000 \mathrm{~kg}$$. The area of cross section of the cylinder carrying the load is $$250 \mathrm{~cm}^{2}$$. The maximum pressure the smaller piston would have to bear is $$\left[\right.$$ Assume $$\left.g=10 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}^{2}\right]$$

2

An emf of $$0.08 \mathrm{~V}$$ is induced in a metal rod of length $$10 \mathrm{~cm}$$ held normal to a uniform magnetic field of $$0.4 \mathrm{~T}$$, when moves with a velocity of:

3

For particle P revolving round the centre O with radius of circular path $$\mathrm{r}$$ and angular velocity $$\omega$$, as shown in below figure, the projection of OP on the $$x$$-axis at time $$t$$ is

JEE Main 2023 (Online) 8th April Evening Shift Physics - Simple Harmonic Motion Question 29 English

4

In photo electric effect

A. The photocurrent is proportional to the intensity of the incident radiation

B. Maximum Kinetic energy with which photoelectrons are emitted depends on the intensity of incident light.

C. Max. K.E with which photoelectrons are emitted depends on the frequency of incident light.

D. The emission of photoelectrons require a minimum threshold intensity of incident radiation.

E. Max. K.E of the photoelectrons is independent of the frequency of the incident light.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

5

A bullet of mass $$0.1 \mathrm{~kg}$$ moving horizontally with speed $$400 \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}$$ hits a wooden block of mass $$3.9 \mathrm{~kg}$$ kept on a horizontal rough surface. The bullet gets embedded into the block and moves $$20 \mathrm{~m}$$ before coming to rest. The coefficient of friction between the block and the surface is __________.

(Given $$g=10 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}^{2}$$ )

6

Given below are two statements

Statement I : Area under velocity- time graph gives the distance travelled by the body in a given time.

Statement II : Area under acceleration- time graph is equal to the change in velocity- in the given time.

In the light of given statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

7

The acceleration due to gravity at height $$h$$ above the earth if $$h << \mathrm{R}$$ (Radius of earth) is given by

8

The equivalent resistance between A and B as shown in figure is:

JEE Main 2023 (Online) 8th April Evening Shift Physics - Current Electricity Question 76 English

9

The waves emitted when a metal target is bombarded with high energy electrons are

10

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion $$\mathbf{A}$$ and the other is labelled as Reason $$\mathbf{R}$$

Assertion A : Electromagnets are made of soft iron.

Reason R : Soft iron has high permeability and low retentivity.

In the light of above, statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

11

Electric potential at a point '$$\mathrm{P}$$' due to a point charge of $$5 \times 10^{-9} \mathrm{C}$$ is $$50 \mathrm{~V}$$. The distance of '$$\mathrm{P}$$' from the point charge is:

(Assume, $$\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}}=9 \times 10^{+9} ~\mathrm{Nm}^{2} \mathrm{C}^{-2}$$ )

12

The orbital angular momentum of a satellite is L, when it is revolving in a circular orbit at height h from earth surface. If the distance of satellite from the earth centre is increased by eight times to its initial value, then the new angular momentum will be -

13

The temperature at which the kinetic energy of oxygen molecules becomes double than its value at $$27^{\circ} \mathrm{C}$$ is

14

The trajectory of projectile, projected from the ground is given by $$y=x-\frac{x^{2}}{20}$$. Where $$x$$ and $$y$$ are measured in meter. The maximum height attained by the projectile will be.

15

The width of fringe is $$2 \mathrm{~mm}$$ on the screen in a double slits experiment for the light of wavelength of $$400 \mathrm{~nm}$$. The width of the fringe for the light of wavelength 600 $$\mathrm{nm}$$ will be:

16

Match List I with List II

LIST I LIST II
A. Torque I. $$\mathrm{ML^{-2}T^{-2}}$$
B. Stress II. $$\mathrm{ML^2T^{-2}}$$
C. Pressure gradient III. $$\mathrm{ML^{-1}T^{-1}}$$
D. Coefficient of viscosity IV. $$\mathrm{ML^{-1}T^{-2}}$$

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

17

The number density of free electrons in copper is nearly $$8 \times 10^{28} \mathrm{~m}^{-3}$$. A copper wire has its area of cross section $$=2 \times 10^{-6} \mathrm{~m}^{2}$$ and is carrying a current of $$3.2 \mathrm{~A}$$. The drift speed of the electrons is ___________ $$\times 10^{-6} \mathrm{ms}^{-1}$$

18

Two transparent media having refractive indices 1.0 and 1.5 are separated by a spherical refracting surface of radius of curvature $$30 \mathrm{~cm}$$. The centre of curvature of surface is towards denser medium and a point object is placed on the principle axis in rarer medium at a distance of $$15 \mathrm{~cm}$$ from the pole of the surface. The distance of image from the pole of the surface is ____________ $$\mathrm{cm}$$.

19

A guitar string of length 90 cm vibrates with a fundamental frequency of 120 Hz. The length of the string producing a fundamental frequency of 180 Hz will be _________ cm.

20

A body of mass $$5 \mathrm{~kg}$$ is moving with a momentum of $$10 \mathrm{~kg} \mathrm{~ms}^{-1}$$. Now a force of $$2 \mathrm{~N}$$ acts on the body in the direction of its motion for $$5 \mathrm{~s}$$. The increase in the Kinetic energy of the body is ___________ $$\mathrm{J}$$.

21

The ratio of wavelength of spectral lines $$\mathrm{H}_{\alpha}$$ and $$\mathrm{H}_{\beta}$$ in the Balmer series is $$\frac{x}{20}$$. The value of $$x$$ is _________.

22

A steel rod of length $$1 \mathrm{~m}$$ and cross sectional area $$10^{-4} \mathrm{~m}^{2}$$ is heated from $$0^{\circ} \mathrm{C}$$ to $$200^{\circ} \mathrm{C}$$ without being allowed to extend or bend. The compressive tension produced in the rod is ___________ $$\times 10^{4} \mathrm{~N}$$. (Given Young's modulus of steel $$=2 \times 10^{11} \mathrm{Nm}^{-2}$$, coefficient of linear expansion $$=10^{-5} \mathrm{~K}^{-1}$$ )

23

A hollow spherical ball of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity $$3 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}$$ (as shown in figure). Maximum height with respect to the initial position covered by it will be __________ cm.

JEE Main 2023 (Online) 8th April Evening Shift Physics - Rotational Motion Question 50 English

24

The ratio of magnetic field at the centre of a current carrying coil of radius $$r$$ to the magnetic field at distance $$r$$ from the centre of coil on its axis is $$\sqrt{x}: 1$$. The value of $$x$$ is __________

25

A $$600 ~\mathrm{pF}$$ capacitor is charged by $$200 \mathrm{~V}$$ supply. It is then disconnected from the supply and is connected to another uncharged $$600 ~\mathrm{pF}$$ capacitor. Electrostatic energy lost in the process is ____________ $$\mu \mathrm{J}$$