Chemistry
1

The major product 'P' for the following sequence of reactions is :

JEE Main 2023 (Online) 29th January Morning Shift Chemistry - Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 74 English

2

The magnetic behaviour of $$\mathrm{Li_2O,Na_2O_2}$$ and $$\mathrm{KO_2}$$, respectively, are :

3

Compound that will give positive Lassaigne's test for both nitrogen and halogen is :

4

Identify the correct order for the given property for following compounds.

JEE Main 2023 (Online) 29th January Morning Shift Chemistry - Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Question 59 English

Choose the correct answer from the option given below :

5

The bond dissociation energy is highest for

6

Number of cyclic tripeptides formed with 2 amino acids A and B is :

7

The shortest wavelength of hydrogen atom in Lyman series is $$\lambda$$. The longest wavelength is Balmer series of He$$^+$$ is

8

Match List I with List II

List I List II
Reaction Reagents
(A) Hoffmann Degradation (I) $$\mathrm{Conc. KOH}$$, $$\Delta$$
(B) Clemenson reduction (II) $$\mathrm{CHCl_3,NaOH/H_3O}$$$$^ \oplus $$
(C) Cannizaro reaction (III) $$\mathrm{Br_2,NaOH}$$
(D) Reimer-Tiemann Reaction (IV) $$\mathrm{Zn-Hg/HCl}$$

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

9

The increasing order of $$\mathrm{pK_a}$$ for the following phenols is

(A) 2, 4 - Dinitrophenol

(B) 4 - Nitrophenol

(C) 2, 4, 5 - Trimethylphenol

(D) Phenol

(E) 3-Chlorophenol

Choose the correct answer from the option given below :

10

Chiral complex from the following is :

Here en = ethylene diamine

11

The standard electrode potential $$\mathrm{(M^{3+}/M^{2+})}$$ for V, Cr, Mn & Co are $$-$$0.26 V, $$-$$0.41 V, + 1.57 V and + 1.97 V, respectively. The metal ions which can liberate $$\mathrm{H_2}$$ from a dilute acid are :

12

Following chromatogram was developed by adsorption of compound 'A' on a 6 cm TLC glass plate. Retardation factor of the compound 'A' is _________ $$\times 10^{-1}$$.

JEE Main 2023 (Online) 29th January Morning Shift Chemistry - Basics of Organic Chemistry Question 110 English

13

Millimoles of calcium hydroxide required to produce 100 mL of the aqueous solution of pH 12 is $$x\times10^{-1}$$. The value of $$x$$ is ___________ (Nearest integer).

Assume complete dissociation.

14

For certain chemical reaction $$X\to Y$$, the rate of formation of product is plotted against the time as shown in the figure. The number of $$\mathrm{\underline {correct} }$$ statement/s from the following is ___________.

JEE Main 2023 (Online) 29th January Morning Shift Chemistry - Chemical Kinetics and Nuclear Chemistry Question 62 English

(A) Over all order of this reaction is one.

(B) Order of this reaction can't be determined.

(C) In region I and III, the reaction is of first and zero order respectively.

(D) In region-II, the reaction is of first order.

(E) In region-II, the order of reaction is in the range of 0.1 to 0.9.

15

The number of molecules or ions from the following, which do not have odd number of electrons are _________.

(A) NO$$_2$$

(B) ICl$$_4^ - $$

(C) BrF$$_3$$

(D) ClO$$_2$$

(E) NO$$_2^ + $$

(F) NO

16

Following figure shows dependence of molar conductance of two electrolytes on concentration. $$\Lambda \mathop m\limits^o $$ is the limiting molar conductivity.

JEE Main 2023 (Online) 29th January Morning Shift Chemistry - Electrochemistry Question 72 English

The number of $$\mathrm{\underline {incorrect} }$$ statement(s) from the following is ___________

(A) $$\Lambda \mathop m\limits^o $$ for electrolyte A is obtained by extrapolation

(B) For electrolyte B, $$\Lambda \mathop m\limits $$ vs $$\sqrt c$$ graph is a straight line with intercept equal to $$\Lambda \mathop m\limits^o $$

(C) At infinite dilution, the value of degree of dissociation approaches zero for electrolyte B.

(D) $$\Lambda \mathop m\limits^o $$ for any electrolyte A and B can be calculated using $$\lambda^\circ$$ for individual ions

17

Solid Lead nitrate is dissolved in 1 litre of water. The solution was found to boil at 100.15$$^\circ$$C. When 0.2 mol of NaCl is added to the resulting solution, it was observed that the solution froze at $$-0.8^\circ$$ C. The solubility product of PbCl$$_2$$ formed is __________ $$\times$$ 10$$^{-6}$$ at 298 K. (Nearest integer)

Given : $$\mathrm{K_b=0.5}$$ K kg mol$$^{-1}$$ and $$\mathrm{K_f=1.8}$$ K kg mol$$^{-1}$$. Assume molality to the equal to molarity in all cases.

18

Water decomposes at 2300 K

$$\mathrm{H_2O(g)\to H_2(g)+\frac{1}{2}O_2(g)}$$

The percent of water decomposing at 2300 K and 1 bar is ___________ (Nearest integer).

Equilibrium constant for the reaction is $$2\times10^{-3}$$ at 2300 K.

19

Consider the following reaction approaching equilibrium at 27$$^\circ$$C and 1 atm pressure

$$\mathrm{A+B}$$ $$\mathrel{\mathop{\kern0pt\rightleftharpoons} \limits_{{k_r} = {{10}^2}}^{{k_f} = {{10}^3}}} $$ $$\mathrm{C+D}$$

The standard Gibb's energy change $$\mathrm{(\Delta_r G^\theta)}$$ at 27$$^\circ$$C is ($$-$$) ___________ kJ mol$$^{-1}$$ (Nearest integer).

(Given : $$\mathrm{R=8.3~J~K^{-1}~mol^{-1}}$$ and $$\mathrm{\ln 10=2.3}$$)

20

The sum of bridging carbonyls in $$\mathrm{W(CO)_6}$$ and $$\mathrm{Mn_2(CO)_{10}}$$ is ____________.

21

17 mg of a hydrocarbon (M.F. $$\mathrm{C_{10}H_{16}}$$) takes up 8.40 mL of the H$$_2$$ gas measured at 0$$^\circ$$C and 760 mm of Hg. Ozonolysis of the same hydrocarbon yields

JEE Main 2023 (Online) 29th January Morning Shift Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 54 English

The number of double bond/s present in the hydrocarbon is ___________.

Mathematics
1

Let $$\lambda \ne 0$$ be a real number. Let $$\alpha,\beta$$ be the roots of the equation $$14{x^2} - 31x + 3\lambda = 0$$ and $$\alpha,\gamma$$ be the roots of the equation $$35{x^2} - 53x + 4\lambda = 0$$. Then $${{3\alpha } \over \beta }$$ and $${{4\alpha } \over \gamma }$$ are the roots of the equation

2

Let $$B$$ and $$C$$ be the two points on the line $$y+x=0$$ such that $$B$$ and $$C$$ are symmetric with respect to the origin. Suppose $$A$$ is a point on $$y-2 x=2$$ such that $$\triangle A B C$$ is an equilateral triangle. Then, the area of the $$\triangle A B C$$ is :

3

Three rotten apples are mixed accidently with seven good apples and four apples are drawn one by one without replacement. Let the random variable X denote the number of rotten apples. If $$\mu$$ and $$\sigma^2$$ represent mean and variance of X, respectively, then $$10(\mu^2+\sigma^2)$$ is equal to :

4

Let $$f(\theta ) = 3\left( {{{\sin }^4}\left( {{{3\pi } \over 2} - \theta } \right) + {{\sin }^4}(3\pi + \theta )} \right) - 2(1 - {\sin ^2}2\theta )$$ and $$S = \left\{ {\theta \in [0,\pi ]:f'(\theta ) = - {{\sqrt 3 } \over 2}} \right\}$$. If $$4\beta = \sum\limits_{\theta \in S} \theta $$, then $$f(\beta )$$ is equal to

5

Fifteen football players of a club-team are given 15 T-shirts with their names written on the backside. If the players pick up the T-shirts randomly, then the probability that at least 3 players pick the correct T-shirt is :

6

Let the tangents at the points $$A(4,-11)$$ and $$B(8,-5)$$ on the circle $$x^{2}+y^{2}-3 x+10 y-15=0$$, intersect at the point $$C$$. Then the radius of the circle, whose centre is $$C$$ and the line joining $$A$$ and $$B$$ is its tangent, is equal to :

7

Let $$f(x) = x + {a \over {{\pi ^2} - 4}}\sin x + {b \over {{\pi ^2} - 4}}\cos x,x \in R$$ be a function which

satisfies $$f(x) = x + \int\limits_0^{\pi /2} {\sin (x + y)f(y)dy} $$. then $$(a+b)$$ is equal to

8

Let $$\alpha$$ and $$\beta$$ be real numbers. Consider a 3 $$\times$$ 3 matrix A such that $$A^2=3A+\alpha I$$. If $$A^4=21A+\beta I$$, then

9

A light ray emits from the origin making an angle 30$$^\circ$$ with the positive $$x$$-axis. After getting reflected by the line $$x+y=1$$, if this ray intersects $$x$$-axis at Q, then the abscissa of Q is :

10

For two non-zero complex numbers $$z_{1}$$ and $$z_{2}$$, if $$\operatorname{Re}\left(z_{1} z_{2}\right)=0$$ and $$\operatorname{Re}\left(z_{1}+z_{2}\right)=0$$, then which of the following are possible?

A. $$\operatorname{Im}\left(z_{1}\right)>0$$ and $$\operatorname{Im}\left(z_{2}\right) > 0$$

B. $$\operatorname{Im}\left(z_{1}\right) < 0$$ and $$\operatorname{Im}\left(z_{2}\right) > 0$$

C. $$\operatorname{Im}\left(z_{1}\right) > 0$$ and $$\operatorname{Im}\left(z_{2}\right) < 0$$

D. $$\operatorname{Im}\left(z_{1}\right) < 0$$ and $$\operatorname{Im}\left(z_{2}\right) < 0$$

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

11

Let $$y=f(x)$$ be the solution of the differential equation $$y(x+1)dx-x^2dy=0,y(1)=e$$. Then $$\mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to {0^ + }} f(x)$$ is equal to

12

Let $$\Delta$$ be the area of the region $$\left\{ {(x,y) \in {R^2}:{x^2} + {y^2} \le 21,{y^2} \le 4x,x \ge 1} \right\}$$. Then $${1 \over 2}\left( {\Delta - 21{{\sin }^{ - 1}}{2 \over {\sqrt 7 }}} \right)$$ is equal to

13

The domain of $$f(x) = {{{{\log }_{(x + 1)}}(x - 2)} \over {{e^{2{{\log }_e}x}} - (2x + 3)}},x \in \mathbb{R}$$ is

14

Let $$f:R \to R$$ be a function such that $$f(x) = {{{x^2} + 2x + 1} \over {{x^2} + 1}}$$. Then

15

Let $$[x]$$ denote the greatest integer $$\le x$$. Consider the function $$f(x) = \max \left\{ {{x^2},1 + [x]} \right\}$$. Then the value of the integral $$\int\limits_0^2 {f(x)dx} $$ is

16

Let $$A=\left\{(x, y) \in \mathbb{R}^{2}: y \geq 0,2 x \leq y \leq \sqrt{4-(x-1)^{2}}\right\}$$ and

$$ B=\left\{(x, y) \in \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R}: 0 \leq y \leq \min \left\{2 x, \sqrt{4-(x-1)^{2}}\right\}\right\} \text {. } $$.

Then the ratio of the area of A to the area of B is

17

Consider the following system of equations

$$\alpha x+2y+z=1$$

$$2\alpha x+3y+z=1$$

$$3x+\alpha y+2z=\beta$$

for some $$\alpha,\beta\in \mathbb{R}$$. Then which of the following is NOT correct.

18

If the vectors $$\overrightarrow a = \lambda \widehat i + \mu \widehat j + 4\widehat k$$, $$\overrightarrow b = - 2\widehat i + 4\widehat j - 2\widehat k$$ and $$\overrightarrow c = 2\widehat i + 3\widehat j + \widehat k$$ are coplanar and the projection of $$\overrightarrow a $$ on the vector $$\overrightarrow b $$ is $$\sqrt {54} $$ units, then the sum of all possible values of $$\lambda + \mu $$ is equal to :

19

Let $$x=2$$ be a root of the equation $$x^2+px+q=0$$ and $$f(x) = \left\{ {\matrix{ {{{1 - \cos ({x^2} - 4px + {q^2} + 8q + 16)} \over {{{(x - 2p)}^4}}},} & {x \ne 2p} \cr {0,} & {x = 2p} \cr } } \right.$$

Then $$\mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to 2{p^ + }} [f(x)]$$, where $$\left[ . \right]$$ denotes greatest integer function, is

20

Let $$a_1,a_2,a_3,...$$ be a $$GP$$ of increasing positive numbers. If the product of fourth and sixth terms is 9 and the sum of fifth and seventh terms is 24, then $$a_1a_9+a_2a_4a_9+a_5+a_7$$ is equal to __________.

21

Suppose $$f$$ is a function satisfying $$f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y)$$ for all $$x,y \in N$$ and $$f(1) = {1 \over 5}$$. If $$\sum\limits_{n = 1}^m {{{f(n)} \over {n(n + 1)(n + 2)}} = {1 \over {12}}} $$, then $$m$$ is equal to __________.

22

Let the coefficients of three consecutive terms in the binomial expansion of $$(1+2x)^n$$ be in the ratio 2 : 5 : 8. Then the coefficient of the term, which is in the middle of those three terms, is __________.

23

If the co-efficient of $$x^9$$ in $${\left( {\alpha {x^3} + {1 \over {\beta x}}} \right)^{11}}$$ and the co-efficient of $$x^{-9}$$ in $${\left( {\alpha x - {1 \over {\beta {x^3}}}} \right)^{11}}$$ are equal, then $$(\alpha\beta)^2$$ is equal to ___________.

24

If all the six digit numbers $$x_1\,x_2\,x_3\,x_4\,x_5\,x_6$$ with $$0< x_1 < x_2 < x_3 < x_4 < x_5 < x_6$$ are arranged in the increasing order, then the sum of the digits in the $$\mathrm{72^{th}}$$ number is _____________.

25

Let $$f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$$ be a differentiable function that satisfies the relation $$f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)-1,\forall x,y\in\mathbb{R}$$. If $$f'(0)=2$$, then $$|f(-2)|$$ is equal to ___________.

26

Five digit numbers are formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 5, 7 with repetitions and are written in descending order with serial numbers. For example, the number 77777 has serial number 1. Then the serial number of 35337 is ____________.

27

Let the co-ordinates of one vertex of $$\Delta ABC$$ be $$A(0,2,\alpha)$$ and the other two vertices lie on the line $${{x + \alpha } \over 5} = {{y - 1} \over 2} = {{z + 4} \over 3}$$. For $$\alpha \in \mathbb{Z}$$, if the area of $$\Delta ABC$$ is 21 sq. units and the line segment $$BC$$ has length $$2\sqrt{21}$$ units, then $$\alpha^2$$ is equal to ___________.

Physics
1

Two particles of equal mass '$$m$$' move in a circle of radius '$$r$$' under the action of their mutual gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle will be :

2

Find the mutual inductance in the arrangement, when a small circular loop of wire of radius '$$R$$' is placed inside a large square loop of wire of side $$L$$ $$(L \gg R)$$. The loops are coplanar and their centres coincide :

JEE Main 2023 (Online) 29th January Morning Shift Physics - Electromagnetic Induction Question 44 English

3

In a cuboid of dimension $$2 \mathrm{~L} \times 2 \mathrm{~L} \times \mathrm{L}$$, a charge $$q$$ is placed at the center of the surface '$$\mathrm{S}$$' having area of $$4 \mathrm{~L}^{2}$$. The flux through the opposite surface to '$$\mathrm{S}$$' is given by

4

Surface tension of a soap bubble is $$2.0 \times 10^{-2} \mathrm{Nm}^{-1}$$. Work done to increase the radius of soap bubble from $$3.5 \mathrm{~cm}$$ to $$7 \mathrm{~cm}$$ will be:

Take $$\left[\pi=\frac{22}{7}\right]$$

5

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: If $$d Q$$ and $$d W$$ represent the heat supplied to the system and the work done on the system respectively. Then according to the first law of thermodynamics $$d Q=d U-d W$$.

Reason R: First law of thermodynamics is based on law of conservation of energy.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

6

The magnitude of magnetic induction at mid point $$\mathrm{O}$$ due to current arrangement as shown in Fig will be

JEE Main 2023 (Online) 29th January Morning Shift Physics - Magnetic Effect of Current Question 72 English

7

A stone is projected at angle $$30^{\circ}$$ to the horizontal. The ratio of kinetic energy of the stone at point of projection to its kinetic energy at the highest point of flight will be -

8

A block of mass $m$ slides down the plane inclined at angle $$30^{\circ}$$ with an acceleration $$\frac{g}{4}$$. The value of coefficient of kinetic friction will be:

9

Match List I with List II :

List I (Physical Quantity) List II (Dimensional Formula)
A. Pressure gradient I. $$\left[\mathrm{M}^{\circ} \mathrm{L}^{2} \mathrm{~T}^{-2}\right]$$
B. Energy density II. $$\left[\mathrm{M}^{1} \mathrm{L}^{-1} \mathrm{~T}^{-2}\right]$$
C. Electric Field III. $$\left[\mathrm{M}^{1} \mathrm{L}^{-2} \mathrm{~T}^{-2}\right]$$
D. Latent heat IV. $$\left[\mathrm{M}^{1} \mathrm{~L}^{1} \mathrm{~T}^{-3} \mathrm{~A}^{-1}\right]$$

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

10

A car is moving on a horizontal curved road with radius 50 m. The approximate maximum speed of car will be, if friction between tyres and road is 0.34. [take g = 10 ms$$^{-2}$$]

11

Which of the following are true?

A. Speed of light in vacuum is dependent on the direction of propagation.

B. Speed of light in a medium is independent of the wavelength of light.

C. The speed of light is independent of the motion of the source.

D. The speed of light in a medium is independent of intensity.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

12

In a Young's double slit experiment, two slits are illuminated with a light of wavelength $$800 \mathrm{~nm}$$. The line joining $$A_{1} P$$ is perpendicular to $$A_{1} A_{2}$$ as shown in the figure. If the first minimum is detected at $$P$$, the value of slits separation 'a' will be:

JEE Main 2023 (Online) 29th January Morning Shift Physics - Wave Optics Question 53 English

The distance of screen from slits D = 5 cm

13

A single current carrying loop of wire carrying current I flowing in anticlockwise direction seen from +ve $$\mathrm{z}$$ direction and lying in $$x y$$ plane is shown in figure. The plot of $$\hat{j}$$ component of magnetic field (By) at a distance '$$a$$' (less than radius of the coil) and on $$y z$$ plane vs $$z$$ coordinate looks like

JEE Main 2023 (Online) 29th January Morning Shift Physics - Magnetic Effect of Current Question 73 English

14

Which one of the following statement is not correct in the case of light emitting diodes?

A. It is a heavily doped p-n junction.

B. It emits light only when it is forward biased.

C. It emits light only when it is reverse biased.

D. The energy of the light emitted is equal to or slightly less than the energy gap of the semiconductor used.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

15

A bicycle tyre is filled with air having pressure of $$270 ~\mathrm{kPa}$$ at $$27^{\circ} \mathrm{C}$$. The approximate pressure of the air in the tyre when the temperature increases to $$36^{\circ} \mathrm{C}$$ is

16

The threshold wavelength for photoelectric emission from a material is 5500 $$\mathop A\limits^o $$. Photoelectrons will be emitted, when this material is illuminated with monochromatic radiation from a

A. 75 W infra-red lamp

B. 10 W infra-red lamp

C. 75 W ultra-violet lamp

D. 10 W ultra-violet lamp

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

17

Ratio of thermal energy released in two resistors R and 3R connected in parallel in an electric circuit is :

18

Two simple harmonic waves having equal amplitudes of 8 cm and equal frequency of 10 Hz are moving along the same direction. The resultant amplitude is also 8 cm. The phase difference between the individual waves is _________ degree.

19

A solid sphere of mass 2 kg is making pure rolling on a horizontal surface with kinetic energy 2240 J. The velocity of centre of mass of the sphere will be _______ ms$$^{-1}$$.

20

In a metre bridge experiment the balance point is obtained if the gaps are closed by 2$$\Omega$$ and 3$$\Omega$$. A shunt of X $$\Omega$$ is added to 3$$\Omega$$ resistor to shift the balancing point by 22.5 cm. The value of X is ___________.

21

A point charge $$q_1=4q_0$$ is placed at origin. Another point charge $$q_2=-q_0$$ is placed at $$x=12$$ cm. Charge of proton is $$q_0$$. The proton is placed on $$x$$ axis so that the electrostatic force on the proton is zero. In this situation, the position of the proton from the origin is ___________ cm.

22

As shown in the figure, three identical polaroids P$$_1$$, P$$_2$$ and P$$_3$$ are placed one after another. The pass axis of P$$_2$$ and P$$_3$$ are inclined at angle of 60$$^\circ$$ and 90$$^\circ$$ with respect to axis of P$$_1$$. The source S has an intensity of 256 $$\frac{W}{m^2}$$. The intensity of light at point O is ____________ $$\frac{W}{m^2}$$.

JEE Main 2023 (Online) 29th January Morning Shift Physics - Wave Optics Question 54 English

23

A 0.4 kg mass takes 8s to reach ground when dropped from a certain height 'P' above surface of earth. The loss of potential energy in the last second of fall is __________ J.

(Take g = 10 m/s$$^2$$)

24

A certain elastic conducting material is stretched into a circular loop. It is placed with its plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B = 0.8 T. When released the radius of the loop starts shrinking at a constant rate of 2 cms$$^{-1}$$. The induced emf in the loop at an instant when the radius of the loop is 10 cm will be __________ mV.

25

A tennis ball is dropped on to the floor from a height of 9.8 m. It rebounds to a height 5.0 m. Ball comes in contact with the floor for 0.2s. The average acceleration during contact is ___________ ms$$^{-2}$$.

(Given g = 10 ms$$^{-2}$$)

1
JEE Main 2023 (Online) 29th January Morning Shift
Numerical
+4
-1

A tennis ball is dropped on to the floor from a height of 9.8 m. It rebounds to a height 5.0 m. Ball comes in contact with the floor for 0.2s. The average acceleration during contact is ___________ ms$$^{-2}$$.

(Given g = 10 ms$$^{-2}$$)

Your input ____
Subject
Chemistry
21
Mathematics
27
Physics
25
More Papers of JEE Main
2025
JEE Main 2025 (Online) 8th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 7th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 7th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 4th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 4th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 3rd April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 3rd April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 2nd April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 2nd April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 29th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 29th January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 28th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 28th January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 24th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 24th January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 23rd January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 23rd January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 22nd January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 22nd January Morning Shift
2024
JEE Main 2024 (Online) 9th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 9th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 8th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 8th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 6th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 6th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 5th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 5th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 4th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 4th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 1st February Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 1st February Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 31st January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 31st January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 30th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 30th January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 29th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 29th January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 27th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 27th January Morning Shift
2023
JEE Main 2023 (Online) 15th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 13th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 13th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 12th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 11th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 11th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 10th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 10th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 8th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 8th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 6th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 6th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 1st February Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 1st February Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 31st January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 31st January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 30th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 30th January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 29th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 29th January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 25th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 25th January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 24th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 24th January Morning Shift
2022
JEE Main 2022 (Online) 29th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 29th July Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 28th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 28th July Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 27th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 27th July Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 26th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 26th July Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 25th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 25th July Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 30th June Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 29th June Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 29th June Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 28th June Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 28th June Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 27th June Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 27th June Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 26th June Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 26th June Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 25th June Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 25th June Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 24th June Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 24th June Morning Shift
2021
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 1st September Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 31st August Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 31st August Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 27th August Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 27th August Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 26th August Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 26th August Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 27th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 27th July Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 25th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 25th July Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 22th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 20th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 20th July Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 18th March Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 18th March Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 17th March Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 17th March Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 16th March Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 16th March Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 26th February Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 26th February Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 25th February Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 25th February Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 24th February Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 24th February Morning Shift
2020
JEE Main 2020 (Online) 6th September Evening SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 6th September Morning SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 5th September Evening SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 5th September Morning SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 4th September Evening SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 4th September Morning SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 3rd September Evening SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 3rd September Morning SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 2nd September Evening SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 2nd September Morning SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 9th January Evening SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 9th January Morning SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 8th January Evening SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 8th January Morning SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 7th January Evening SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 7th January Morning Slot
2019
JEE Main 2019 (Online) 12th April Evening SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 12th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 10th April Evening SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 10th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 9th April Evening SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 9th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 8th April Evening SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 8th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 12th January Evening SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 12th January Morning SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 11th January Evening SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 11th January Morning SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 10th January Evening SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 10th January Morning SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 9th January Evening SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 9th January Morning Slot
2018
JEE Main 2018 (Online) 16th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2018 (Offline)JEE Main 2018 (Online) 15th April Evening SlotJEE Main 2018 (Online) 15th April Morning Slot
2017
JEE Main 2017 (Online) 9th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2017 (Online) 8th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2017 (Offline)
2016
JEE Main 2016 (Online) 10th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2016 (Online) 9th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2016 (Offline)
2015
JEE Main 2015 (Offline)
2014
JEE Main 2014 (Offline)
2013
JEE Main 2013 (Offline)
2012
AIEEE 2012
2011
AIEEE 2011
2010
AIEEE 2010
2009
AIEEE 2009
2008
AIEEE 2008
2007
AIEEE 2007
2006
AIEEE 2006
2005
AIEEE 2005
2004
AIEEE 2004
2003
AIEEE 2003
2002
AIEEE 2002
JEE Main Papers
2021
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 1st September Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 31st August Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 31st August Morning Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 27th August Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 27th August Morning Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 26th August Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 26th August Morning Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 27th July Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 27th July Morning Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 25th July Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 25th July Morning Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 22th July Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 20th July Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 20th July Morning Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 18th March Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 18th March Morning Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 17th March Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 17th March Morning Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 16th March Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 16th March Morning Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 26th February Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 26th February Morning Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 25th February Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 25th February Morning Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 24th February Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 24th February Morning Shift
English
Hindi