Chemistry
1
Two open beakers one containing a solvent and the other containing a mixture of that solvent with a non voltatile solute are together selated in a container. Over time :
2
In the following reaction sequence,

JEE Main 2020 (Online) 7th January Evening Slot Chemistry - Compounds Containing Nitrogen Question 177 English
The major product B is :
3
Among the statements(a)-(d) the incorrect ones are :
(a) Octahedral CO(III) complexes with strong fields ligands have very high magnetic moments.
(b) When $$\Delta $$0 < P, the d-electron configuration of Co(III) in an octahedral complex is $$t_{eg}^4e_g^2$$
(c) Wavelength of light absorbed by [Co(en)3]3+ is lower than that of [CoF6]3-
(d) If the $$\Delta $$0 for an octahedral complex of CO(III) is 18,000 cm-1, the $$\Delta $$t for its tetrahedral complex with the same ligand be 16,000 cm-1
4
Within each pair of elements F & Cl, S & Se, and Li & Na, respectively, the elements that release more energy upon and electron gain are :
5
The ammonia (NH3) released on quantitative reaction of 0.6 g urea (NH2CONH2) with sodium hydroxide (NaOH) can be neutralized by :
6
Which of the following statements is correct ?
7
A chromatography column, packed with silica gel as stationary phase, was used to separate a mixture of compounds consisting of (A) benzanilide (B) aniline and (C) acetophenone. When the column is eluted with a mixture of solvents, hexane : ethylacelate (20:80), the sequence of obtained compounds is :
8
The redox reaction among the following is :
9
In the following reactions sequence, structure of A and B respectively will be :
JEE Main 2020 (Online) 7th January Evening Slot Chemistry - Hydrocarbons Question 106 English
10
For the following reactions

JEE Main 2020 (Online) 7th January Evening Slot Chemistry - Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Question 122 English
Ks and Ke, are respectively, the rate constants for substitution and elimination and $$\mu = {{{k_s}} \over {{k_e}}}$$ the correct options is
11
The number of possible optical isomers for the complexes MA2B2 with sp3 and dsp2 hydridized metal atom. respectively, is :
Note : A and B are unidentate netural and unidentate monoanionic ligands, respectively.
12
The equation that is incorrect is :
13
The bond order and the magnetic characteristics of CN- are :
14
The correct order of stability for the following alkoxides is :

JEE Main 2020 (Online) 7th January Evening Slot Chemistry - Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Question 124 English
15
For the reaction
2H2(g) + 2NO(g) $$ \to $$ N2(g) + 2H2O(g)
the observed rate expression is, rate = Kf[NO]2[H2]. The rate expression for the reverse reaction is :
16
Consider the following reactions : JEE Main 2020 (Online) 7th January Evening Slot Chemistry - Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Question 123 English 1 JEE Main 2020 (Online) 7th January Evening Slot Chemistry - Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Question 123 English 2 JEE Main 2020 (Online) 7th January Evening Slot Chemistry - Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Question 123 English 3 JEE Main 2020 (Online) 7th January Evening Slot Chemistry - Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Question 123 English 4
Which of these reactions are possible ?
17
The flocculation value of HCl for arsenic sulphide sol.
is 30 m mol L-1 If H2SO4 is used for the flocculatiopn of arsenic sulphide, the amount in grams, of H2SO4 in 250 ml required for the above purposed is ______.
(molecular mass of H2SO4 = 98 g/mol)
18
3 g of acetic acid is added to 250 mL of 0.1 M HCL and the solution made up to 500 mL. To 20 mL of this solutions $${1 \over 2}$$ mL of 5 M NaOH is added. The pH of the solution is __________.

[Given : pKa of acetic acid = 4.75, molar mass of acetic of acid = 60 g/mol, log 3 = 0.4771] Neglect any changes in volume.
19
The standard heat of formation $$\left( {{\Delta _f}H_{298}^0} \right)$$ of ethane (in kj/mol), if the heat of combustion of ethane, hydrogen and graphite are - 1560, -393.5 and -286 Kj/mol, respectively is :
20
Consider the following reactions :

$$NaCl{\rm{ }} + {\rm{ }}{K_2}C{r_2}{O_7} + \mathop {{H_2}S{O_4}}\limits_{(conc.)} $$$$ \to $$ (A) + side products

(A) + NaOH $$ \to $$ (B) + Side products

$$\left( B \right){\rm{ }} + \mathop {{H_2}S{O_4}}\limits_{(dilute)} + {\rm{ }}{H_2}{O_2}$$ $$ \to $$ (C) + Side products

The sum of the total number of atoms in one molecule each of (A) and (B) and (C) is
Mathematics
1
Let $${a_1}$$ , $${a_2}$$ , $${a_3}$$ ,....... be a G.P. such that
$${a_1}$$ < 0, $${a_1}$$ + $${a_2}$$ = 4 and $${a_3}$$ + $${a_4}$$ = 16.
If $$\sum\limits_{i = 1}^9 {{a_i}} = 4\lambda $$, then $$\lambda $$ is equal to:
2
The coefficient of x7 in the expression
(1 + x)10 + x(1 + x)9 + x2(1 + x)8 + ......+ x10 is:
3
The number of ordered pairs (r, k) for which
6.35Cr = (k2 - 3). 36Cr + 1, where k is an integer, is :
4
The value of $$\alpha $$ for which
$$4\alpha \int\limits_{ - 1}^2 {{e^{ - \alpha \left| x \right|}}dx} = 5$$, is:
5
The locus of the mid-points of the perpendiculars drawn from points on the line, x = 2y to the line x = y is :
6
If the function ƒ defined on $$\left( { - {1 \over 3},{1 \over 3}} \right)$$ by

f(x) = $$\left\{ {\matrix{ {{1 \over x}{{\log }_e}\left( {{{1 + 3x} \over {1 - 2x}}} \right),} & {when\,x \ne 0} \cr {k,} & {when\,x = 0} \cr } } \right.$$

is continuous, then k is equal to_______.
7
If the mean and variance of eight numbers 3, 7, 9, 12, 13, 20, x and y be 10 and 25 respectively, then x.y is equal to _______.
8
If the system of linear equations,
x + y + z = 6
x + 2y + 3z = 10
3x + 2y + $$\lambda $$z = $$\mu $$
has more than two solutions, then $$\mu $$ - $$\lambda $$2 is equal to ______.
9
If the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point (1, 0, 3) on a line passing through ($$\alpha $$, 7, 1) is $$\left( {{5 \over 3},{7 \over 3},{{17} \over 3}} \right)$$, then $$\alpha $$ is equal to______.
10
Let ƒ(x) be a polynomial of degree 5 such that x = ±1 are its critical points.

If $$\mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to 0} \left( {2 + {{f\left( x \right)} \over {{x^3}}}} \right) = 4$$, then which one of the following is not true?
11
Let X = {n $$ \in $$ N : 1 $$ \le $$ n $$ \le $$ 50}. If
A = {n $$ \in $$ X: n is a multiple of 2} and
B = {n $$ \in $$ X: n is a multiple of 7}, then the number of elements in the smallest subset of X containing both A and B is ________.
12
If $${{3 + i\sin \theta } \over {4 - i\cos \theta }}$$, $$\theta $$ $$ \in $$ [0, 2$$\theta $$], is a real number, then an argument of
sin$$\theta $$ + icos$$\theta $$ is :
13
If $$\theta $$1 and $$\theta $$2 be respectively the smallest and the largest values of $$\theta $$ in (0, 2$$\pi $$) - {$$\pi $$} which satisfy the equation,
2cot2$$\theta $$ - $${5 \over {\sin \theta }}$$ + 4 = 0, then
$$\int\limits_{{\theta _1}}^{{\theta _2}} {{{\cos }^2}3\theta d\theta } $$ is equal to :
14
Let y = y(x) be a function of x satisfying

$$y\sqrt {1 - {x^2}} = k - x\sqrt {1 - {y^2}} $$ where k is a constant and

$$y\left( {{1 \over 2}} \right) = - {1 \over 4}$$. Then $${{dy} \over {dx}}$$ at x = $${1 \over 2}$$, is equal to :
15
Let y = y(x) be the solution curve of the differential equation,

$$\left( {{y^2} - x} \right){{dy} \over {dx}} = 1$$, satisfying y(0) = 1. This curve intersects the x-axis at a point whose abscissa is :
16
Let $$\overrightarrow a $$ , $$\overrightarrow b $$ and $$\overrightarrow c $$ be three unit vectors such that
$$\overrightarrow a + \vec b + \overrightarrow c = \overrightarrow 0 $$. If $$\lambda = \overrightarrow a .\vec b + \vec b.\overrightarrow c + \overrightarrow c .\overrightarrow a $$ and
$$\overrightarrow d = \overrightarrow a \times \vec b + \vec b \times \overrightarrow c + \overrightarrow c \times \overrightarrow a $$, then the ordered pair, $$\left( {\lambda ,\overrightarrow d } \right)$$ is equal to :
17
The area (in sq. units) of the region
{(x, y) $$ \in $$ R2 | 4x2 $$ \le $$ y $$ \le $$ 8x + 12} is :
18
Let $$\alpha $$ and $$\beta $$ be the roots of the equation x2 - x - 1 = 0.
If pk = $${\left( \alpha \right)^k} + {\left( \beta \right)^k}$$ , k $$ \ge $$ 1, then which one of the following statements is not true?
Physics
1
The sum of two forces $$\overrightarrow P $$ and $$\overrightarrow Q $$ is $$\overrightarrow R $$ such that $$\left| {\overrightarrow R } \right| = \left| {\overrightarrow P } \right|$$ . The angle $$\theta $$ (in degrees) that the resultant of 2$${\overrightarrow P }$$ and $${\overrightarrow Q }$$ will make with $${\overrightarrow Q }$$ is , ..............
2
M grams of steam at 100oC is mixed with 200 g of ice at its melting point in a thermally insulated container. If it produced liquid water at 40oC [heat of vaporization of water is 540 cal/g and heat of fusion of ice is 80 cal/g] the value of M is ____
3
JEE Main 2020 (Online) 7th January Evening Slot Physics - Rotational Motion Question 155 English Consider a uniform cubical box of side a on a rough floor that is to be moved by applying minimum possible force F at a point b above its centre of mass (see figure). If the coefficient of friction is $$\mu $$ = 0.4, the maximum possible value of 100 × $${b \over a}$$ for box not to topple before moving is .......
4
A 60 pF capacitor is fully charged by a 20 V supply. It is then disconnected from the supply and is conneced to another uncharged 60 pF capacitor in parallel. The electrostatic energy that is lost in this process by the time the charge is redistributed between them is (in nJ) _____
5
A box weight 196 N on a spring balance at the north pole. Its weight recorded on the same balance if it is shifted to the equator is close to (Take g = 10 ms–2 at the north pole and the radius of the earth = 6400 km) :
6
An ideal fluid flows (laminar flow) through a pipe of non-uniform diameter. The maximum and minimum diameters of the pipes are 6.4 cm and 4.8 cm, respectively. The ratio of the minimum and the maximum velocities of fluid in this pipe is :
7
In a Young's double slit experiment, the separation between the slits is 0.15 mm. in the experiment, a source of light of wavelengh 589 nm is used and the interference pattern is observed on a screen kept 1.5 m away. The separation between the successive bright fringes on the screen is :
8
Under an adiabatic process, the volume of an ideal gas gets doubled. Consequently the mean collision time between the gas molecule changes from $${\tau _1}$$ to $${\tau _2}$$ . If $${{{C_p}} \over {{C_v}}} = \gamma $$ for this gas then a good estimate for $${{{\tau _2}} \over {{\tau _1}}}$$ is given by :
9
The electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave is given by
$$\overrightarrow E = {E_0}{{\widehat i + \widehat j} \over {\sqrt 2 }}\cos \left( {kz + \omega t} \right)$$

At t = 0, a positively charged particle is at the point (x, y, z) = $$\left( {0,0,{\pi \over k}} \right)$$.
If its instantaneous velocity at (t = 0) is $${v_0}\widehat k$$ , the force acting on it due to the wave is :
10
A thin lens made of glass (refractive index = 1.5) of focal length f = 16 cm is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.42. If its focal length in liquid is f1 , then the ratio $${{{f_1}} \over f}$$ is closest to the integer :
11
An elevator in a building can carry a maximum of 10 persons, with the average mass of each person being 68 kg, The mass of the elevator itself is 920 kg and it moves with a constant speed of 3 m/s. The frictional force opposing the motion is 6000 N. If the elevator is moving up with its full capacity, the power delivered by the motor to the elevator (g = 10 m/s2) must be at least :
12
In the figure, potential difference between A and B is : JEE Main 2020 (Online) 7th January Evening Slot Physics - Semiconductor Question 155 English
13
The dimension of $${{{B^2}} \over {2{\mu _0}}}$$, where B is magnetic field and $${{\mu _0}}$$ is the magnetic permeability of vacuum, is :
14
In a building there are 15 bulbs of 45 W, 15 bulbs of 100 W, 15 small fans of 10 W and 2 heaters of 1 kW. The voltage of electric main is 220 V. The minimum fuse capacity (rated value) of the building will be :
15
A mass of 10 kg is suspended by a rope of length 4 m, from the ceiling. A force F is applied horizontally at the mid point of the rope such that the top half of the rope makes an angle of 45o with the vertical. Then F equal : (Take g = 10 ms–2 and the rope to be massless)
16
A planar loop of wire rotates in a uniform magnetic field. Initially at t = 0, the plane of the loop is perpendicular to the magnetic field. If it rotates with a period of 10 s about an axis in its plane then the magnitude of induced emf will be maximum and minimum, respectively at :
17
An emf of 20 V is applied at time t = 0 to a circuit containing in series 10 mH inductor and 5 $$\Omega $$ resistor. The ratio of the currents at time t = $$\infty $$ and at t = 40 s is close to : (Take e2 = 7.389)
18
A particle of mass m and charge q has an initial velocity $$\overrightarrow v = {v_0}\widehat j$$ . If an electric field $$\overrightarrow E = {E_0}\widehat i$$ and magnetic field $$\overrightarrow B = {B_0}\widehat i$$ act on the particle, its speed will double after a time:
19
Mass per unit area of a circular disc of radius $$a$$ depends on the distance r from its centre as $$\sigma \left( r \right)$$ = A + Br . The moment of inertia of the disc about the axis, perpendicular to the plane and assing through its centre is:
20
An electron (of mass m) and a photon have the same energy E in the range of a few eV. The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electron and the wavelength of the photon is (c = speed of light in vaccuum)
1
JEE Main 2020 (Online) 7th January Evening Slot
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Under an adiabatic process, the volume of an ideal gas gets doubled. Consequently the mean collision time between the gas molecule changes from $${\tau _1}$$ to $${\tau _2}$$ . If $${{{C_p}} \over {{C_v}}} = \gamma $$ for this gas then a good estimate for $${{{\tau _2}} \over {{\tau _1}}}$$ is given by :
A
$${\left( 2 \right)^{{{1 + \gamma } \over 2}}}$$
B
2
C
$${\left( {{1 \over 2}} \right)^{{{1 + \gamma } \over 2}}}$$
D
$${\left( {{1 \over 2}} \right)^\gamma }$$
2
JEE Main 2020 (Online) 7th January Evening Slot
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
The electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave is given by
$$\overrightarrow E = {E_0}{{\widehat i + \widehat j} \over {\sqrt 2 }}\cos \left( {kz + \omega t} \right)$$

At t = 0, a positively charged particle is at the point (x, y, z) = $$\left( {0,0,{\pi \over k}} \right)$$.
If its instantaneous velocity at (t = 0) is $${v_0}\widehat k$$ , the force acting on it due to the wave is :
A
parallel to $$\widehat k$$
B
parallel to $${{\widehat i + \widehat j} \over {\sqrt 2 }}$$
C
antiparallel to $${{\widehat i + \widehat j} \over {\sqrt 2 }}$$
D
zero
3
JEE Main 2020 (Online) 7th January Evening Slot
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
A thin lens made of glass (refractive index = 1.5) of focal length f = 16 cm is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.42. If its focal length in liquid is f1 , then the ratio $${{{f_1}} \over f}$$ is closest to the integer :
A
17
B
1
C
9
D
5
4
JEE Main 2020 (Online) 7th January Evening Slot
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
An elevator in a building can carry a maximum of 10 persons, with the average mass of each person being 68 kg, The mass of the elevator itself is 920 kg and it moves with a constant speed of 3 m/s. The frictional force opposing the motion is 6000 N. If the elevator is moving up with its full capacity, the power delivered by the motor to the elevator (g = 10 m/s2) must be at least :
A
48000 W
B
62360 W
C
56300 W
D
66000 W
Subject
Chemistry
20
Mathematics
18
Physics
20
More Papers of JEE Main
2025
JEE Main 2025 (Online) 8th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 7th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 7th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 4th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 4th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 3rd April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 3rd April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 2nd April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 2nd April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 29th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 29th January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 28th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 28th January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 24th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 24th January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 23rd January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 23rd January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 22nd January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2025 (Online) 22nd January Morning Shift
2024
JEE Main 2024 (Online) 9th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 9th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 8th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 8th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 6th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 6th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 5th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 5th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 4th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 4th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 1st February Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 1st February Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 31st January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 31st January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 30th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 30th January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 29th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 29th January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 27th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2024 (Online) 27th January Morning Shift
2023
JEE Main 2023 (Online) 15th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 13th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 13th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 12th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 11th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 11th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 10th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 10th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 8th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 8th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 6th April Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 6th April Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 1st February Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 1st February Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 31st January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 31st January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 30th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 30th January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 29th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 29th January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 25th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 25th January Morning ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 24th January Evening ShiftJEE Main 2023 (Online) 24th January Morning Shift
2022
JEE Main 2022 (Online) 29th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 29th July Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 28th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 28th July Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 27th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 27th July Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 26th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 26th July Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 25th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 25th July Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 30th June Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 29th June Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 29th June Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 28th June Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 28th June Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 27th June Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 27th June Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 26th June Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 26th June Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 25th June Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 25th June Morning ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 24th June Evening ShiftJEE Main 2022 (Online) 24th June Morning Shift
2021
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 1st September Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 31st August Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 31st August Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 27th August Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 27th August Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 26th August Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 26th August Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 27th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 27th July Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 25th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 25th July Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 22th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 20th July Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 20th July Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 18th March Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 18th March Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 17th March Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 17th March Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 16th March Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 16th March Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 26th February Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 26th February Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 25th February Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 25th February Morning ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 24th February Evening ShiftJEE Main 2021 (Online) 24th February Morning Shift
2020
JEE Main 2020 (Online) 6th September Evening SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 6th September Morning SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 5th September Evening SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 5th September Morning SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 4th September Evening SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 4th September Morning SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 3rd September Evening SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 3rd September Morning SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 2nd September Evening SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 2nd September Morning SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 9th January Evening SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 9th January Morning SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 8th January Evening SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 8th January Morning SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 7th January Evening SlotJEE Main 2020 (Online) 7th January Morning Slot
2019
JEE Main 2019 (Online) 12th April Evening SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 12th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 10th April Evening SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 10th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 9th April Evening SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 9th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 8th April Evening SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 8th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 12th January Evening SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 12th January Morning SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 11th January Evening SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 11th January Morning SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 10th January Evening SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 10th January Morning SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 9th January Evening SlotJEE Main 2019 (Online) 9th January Morning Slot
2018
JEE Main 2018 (Online) 16th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2018 (Offline)JEE Main 2018 (Online) 15th April Evening SlotJEE Main 2018 (Online) 15th April Morning Slot
2017
JEE Main 2017 (Online) 9th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2017 (Online) 8th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2017 (Offline)
2016
JEE Main 2016 (Online) 10th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2016 (Online) 9th April Morning SlotJEE Main 2016 (Offline)
2015
JEE Main 2015 (Offline)
2014
JEE Main 2014 (Offline)
2013
JEE Main 2013 (Offline)
2012
AIEEE 2012
2011
AIEEE 2011
2010
AIEEE 2010
2009
AIEEE 2009
2008
AIEEE 2008
2007
AIEEE 2007
2006
AIEEE 2006
2005
AIEEE 2005
2004
AIEEE 2004
2003
AIEEE 2003
2002
AIEEE 2002
JEE Main Papers
2021
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 1st September Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 31st August Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 31st August Morning Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 27th August Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 27th August Morning Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 26th August Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 26th August Morning Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 27th July Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 27th July Morning Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 25th July Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 25th July Morning Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 22th July Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 20th July Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 20th July Morning Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 18th March Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 18th March Morning Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 17th March Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 17th March Morning Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 16th March Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 16th March Morning Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 26th February Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 26th February Morning Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 25th February Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 25th February Morning Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 24th February Evening Shift
English
Hindi
JEE Main 2021 (Online) 24th February Morning Shift
English
Hindi